What Did Matthew Actually Write, "Baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost," OR "Go ye, and make disciples of all the nations in My name"?
First of all, I want you to understand that I did not come to the conclusions I do here because of any difference in translation or text of the scripture that may or
may not be exactly what the original Greek said. I studied this out because I first learned the identity of Jesus Christ and came to
understand the importance of baptism and why we are baptized. That knowledge is what prompted me to look at this scripture through a magnifying glass.
I always wondered about Matthew 28:19
because it was one of those places that didn't seem to fit with the picture painted in my mind's eye through knowledge of the rest of the Bible.
So, as I like to do, I studied it out.
The rest of the Bible does not perfectly line up with this scripture, and we
have to use the whole Bible to determine what is truth.
Even the verse before it does not line up well with it!
Mat 28:18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto ME in heaven and in earth.
Every record of baptism in the book of Acts shows that the Apostles obeyed His
command by baptizing in the name of Jesus, or in the name of the Lord (Jesus).
Would the Apostles have disobeyed Him? God forbid! Think about this. There is NO WAY that the Apostles would have disobeyed Jesus.
Here's a few scripture references showing baptism in the name of the Lord Jesus: Acts 2:38, Acts 8:16, Acts 10:48, Acts 19:5, Acts 22:16, Rom 6:3, Gal 3:27, Col 2:12, 1 Pet 3:21
That's the first test.
The second is; did "they", the interpreters of the Bible back in the first few
centuries, change it to agree with what they believed? Like 1 John 5:7, where it
is common knowledge that words were inserted that were not in the original text,
(Click here to see a screenshot of Strongs Greek/Hebrew dictionary)
did they insert words to make the scripture agree with what they thought was
I invite you to read the following references on the subject:
Click here to see a list of some references proving Baptism was changed by the Catholic church from what Jesus taught and the Apostles practiced.
These facts prove that the
original Matthew 28:19 did not say, "in the name of the Father, Son and Holy
Ghost", but in fact lines up with the rest of the scriptures very well with the
words, "in My name".
Since we know that words were inserted in 1 John 5, it's a short step to understand
that these words were also inserted as well.
AND, when we look at the parallel scriptures in Mark and Luke, we see that He said to do these things in His name in both scriptures concerning the final instructions:
Luk 24:46 And said unto them, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day:
47 And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem.
Act 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins,
and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
-= !!! Baptism in the name of Jesus Christ is for the remission of sins !!! =-
Mar 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
18 They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.
When we combine all of this knowledge, it's obvious that Jesus said, "In My name" in Matthew 28.
A TON of additional information concerning this subject
Other pages on this site concerning this subject are:
Why is baptism important?
There's only One God
Who is Jesus?
God bless you on your quest for Truth. I pray the Lord leads you to it!